Posted by Patricia on September 17, 1997 at 00:26:02:
I'm continuing my inquiry from P&P2BB. If the living was the clergyman's job+clergyman's income through tithing, which makes perfect sense, then why was it more economical for Sir Thomas to give the Mansfield living to Dr. Grant rather than Edmund? Did Sir Thomas receive some sort of payment from Dr. Grant or the Church of England that would not be available if Edmund had recieved the Mansfield living?
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