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Posted by Laura W on June 30, 1998 at 13:44:02:


In response to Argentine weddings, written by Constanza on June 30, 1998 at 10:39:12

To L and T index ] I don't know why I assumed it was understood that I was speaking of Catholic marriages. My grandmother is a Catholic and so was my grandfather. So sorry!


I understood that, but I am a genealogist and have learned not to assume anything! Not knowing about the civil/religious ceremony distinctions in Argentina, I did not want to assume that a non-nuptial-mass marriage ceremony, even between two Catholics (which BTW you had not previously specified), was a Catholic marriage ceremony performed by a priest. Or to assume that the marriage of your grandparents, which was admittedly unusual in that it was performed at home during a mourning period, was the norm rather than the exception.

So, to recap our discussion:

We can probably safely conclude that the 8-12am restriction on marriage ceremonies, both in the Catholic Church and in the Anglican rite, is a leftover rule from the time (pre-Reformation) when (a) everyone was Catholic, and (b) most (if not all) marriage ceremonies included a nuptial mass, which (before Vatican II) required fasting from midnight the night before.

Obviously, these rules have changed worldwide in the last two centuries, both for Catholics and Protestants. Does anyone know (a) if the 8-12 am rule still applies in the Anglican church, or (b) when the nuptial mass became disassociated (assuming it has!) with the marriage ceremony in the Anglican church? I would guess that it happened after the Reformation, probably during the Cromwellian Interregnum-- but what I don't understand is why fanatical protestants would remove all evidence of popery from the ceremony and yet retain the 8-12am rule which apparently was dictated by the necessity of celebrating a mass?? The remaining, buring question is: Is there some reason, other than the nuptial mass, for an 8-12am restriction on weddings?




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