Posted by ElaineL on February 07, 1998 at 10:32:43:
After reading the invaluable information the Mysterious HC has put together on JA's times, I have another clarifying question:
I read somewhere, maybe in "The Prospect Before Her" that the husband could squander his wife's fortune during the marriage because everything legally belonged to him while he was alive. So was it quite likely there were many widows left with nothing even though the "settlement" required a given amount be left for her? Kind of like "squeezing blood out of a turnip"? Or was an amount kept in a kind of "escrow" for her?
Thanks to all who contribute to this wealth of knowledge! EL
- Better late, than never: Thanks for the help! (NFM) ElaineL 09:37:51 2/16/98 (0)
- Settlements Michael J. Horvath 12:41:41 2/11/98 (0)
- Unless, of Course Cassia 12:28:38 2/07/98 (0)
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