I would not use Aristotle's definition
Posted by Erin on May 04, 1998 at 00:20:59:
In response to So JA's comedies aren't Aristotelian? (nfm), written by Linden on May 03, 1998 at 23:56:41
I think we must understand his definition of comedy as a response to the political climate he lived in. Heretofore, comedy had been used as a means of social criticism. The comedies of Aristophanes, for example, came to be viewed as a mechanism that hindered the political and social authority of the ruling classes. Thus, Aristotle's definition of the function of comedy sought to deplete the form of its satirical power to initiate criticism of the state.
I think Austen's purposes fell well within the boundaries of the social/political hegemony...hence we must toss out Aristotle *gasp* in this regard. ;-)
Erin
- We're running off the screen here... Linden 02:15:00 5/04/98
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