Posted by Erin on May 03, 1998 at 12:35:18:
In response to Tragedy and pathos, written by Linden on May 02, 1998 at 20:02:33
...can we accurately apply the term "tragedy" (in its formal definition) to any of Austen's works? I accept the thesis that P&P, for example, resembles the tradedies of recognition, such as King Lear and Oedipus Rex. That is to say that the "problem" executed in P&P is similar to Lear and Oedipus --perception versus reality... but as a whole, P&P IMO does not constitute a tragedy per se.
Yes, I'm being terribly pedantic --an attribute that I know has endeared me to so many here at Pemberley. ;-) (yeah right)
- What about S&S Arnessa 22:51:25 5/04/98 (0)
- Aristotle and tragedy... Helen 14:47:18 5/03/98 (10)
- Blah Blah, Tragedy in this "Helen-ic" age Ian of Erin 22:34:11 5/04/98 (0)
- I can't believe... Erin 00:03:25 5/04/98 (3)
- What did Aristotle say about comedy? Linden 18:47:59 5/03/98 (4)
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