Hey, I think I finally figured it out!
Posted by Mark on November 17, 1997 at 17:57:34:
I think I may have the answer to one of the most common questions posed in these pages, "How is Mr. Collins going to get his hands on Longbourne when he doesn't have the family name Bennet?" These queries usually get referred to FAQ which in turn points to the JIP discussion on "Entails", which is very thorough. But I have not been able to find a suggestion on how it could take place. I would like to ask our local legal experts if the following scenario is feasible.
Longbourne is the ancestral home of a family, call them "Smith". There comes a generation were there are only two girls. The eldest receives Longbourne, with the requirement that if her line ever fails to produce a male heir for two generations, the estate will default to the appropriate male heir of the younger sister's line.
The eldest married a Bennet, the younger sister married a Collins. They each produced one boy, our Mr. Bennet and Mr. Collins. They are first cousins. This makes Mr. Collins the Bennet girls' first cousin, once removed. Since Mr. Bennet has failed to produce a male heir, Longbourne reverts to the younger Smith sister's line, and hence to Mr Collins.
Does this work?
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