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Written by Caroline
(2/14/2013 7:59 p.m.)
in consequence of the missive, It's a more general question I just wondered, penned by OlgaI
All I can tell you is that in those days, the very public and expensive shenanigans of divorce proceedings that Mr Rushworth undertook would have considered the birth of a child of another man as proof that his spouse- and therefore he- had been "materially damaged". Since he did go through with the divorce, I would imagine that he would not have acknowledgged any child. But Jane Austen makes no mention of children at all in this case, so all we can do is wonder.... If what you are really asking is whether there are historical cases of cuckolded husbands knowingly or unknowingly "adopting" the child of erring wives, then we are probably outside the purvey of this board, and I won't go there... |
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