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deliberately or negligent   Written by Bridget D (10/4/2009 9:23 a.m.) in consequence of the missive, Does the distinction matter..., penned by Barbara
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Yes IMO it does make a difference. If he was "careless as to whether he ruined her", rather than gaining some enjoyment from the fact that he ruined her, it might not make any difference to her, but it would IMO mean that he was not as guilty morally as soemone who derived positive enjoyment from hurting someone....and if he's the sort of person who is careless about people's feelings he might be redeemable, but if he actually gets sadistic pleasure from it, he is less likely ever to reform. (Just as if a car driver kills soemone by accident, when driving, the victim is just as dead.. Say if it was because the driver's brakes failed but he is not necessarily guilty, of murder or even manslaughter)


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