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|If he had stated his case to Jane
Written by Ramya
(4/30/2013 5:29 p.m.)
in consequence of the missive, His partiality?, penned by Jim Morris
But if he believed she did not love him based on his friend's word, and to him that was a requirement, what is the case he could have stated to Jane? I blame Bingley for listening to his friend, but my question is whether he had behaved dishonorably by raising Jane's marital prospects without fulfilling them.
I don't see where Lizzy admits that she took things for granted. She only admits that Darcy may have been right in his criticisms regarding the propriety of some of her family. The only reason Darcy had to run after Bingley to London was because he had become aware of his partiality (the same word can be used in different contexts with different emphasis), and he realized that unless he was stopped, his friend would form "a most unhappy connexion." If Darcy did not believe that it was not a possibility, what was the fuss all about? No one is suggesting that Bingley would have proposed the very next day, but B and Jane were inevitably progressing towards an engagement.
Bingley could not confess to Jane that he loved her before he proposed to her. They were not dating in the modern sense. I don't see a single instance in any of Austen's novels where the hero declares his love for the heroine before he is ready to propose. And how can anyone state that Bingley never gave Jane a "hint of marriage" when we don't get to witness any conversations between them? Jane obviously had developed expectations, and thus was disappointed. That is why I blame Bingley.
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