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|It's the assurance that offends me :-) [long]
Written by kathleen (elder)
(4/27/2013 7:50 a.m.)
in consequence of the missive, Darcy's opinion, penned by Jen83
Darcy admits that he assured Bingley that Jane was indifferent, and he made that judgement based on a couple of hours of observing Jane in a public place -- how, exactly, should Jane have acted for Darcy to believe that she returned Bingley's affection?
If Darcy only wanted to save his friend from marriage to a woman who did not love him then why didn't he start with that argument? Darcy admitted that when he & Bingley's sisters arrived in London, he "readily engaged in the office of pointing out to my friend the certain evils of such a choice. I described, and enforced them earnestly." These evils were Mrs Bennet's relatives AND the impropriety of all the Bennets save Elizabeth & Jane.
When those arguments didn't work, Darcy switched to the bogus argument of Jane's indifference, knowing that "Bingley has great natural modesty, with a stronger dependence on my judgment than on his own. To convince him, therefore, that he had deceived himself, was no very difficult point."
Yes, Bingley should have had more confidence in his own opinion, but Darcy used this weakness of Bingley's to manipulate him into not returning to Netherfield. Darcy had decided that Bingley should not marry Jane, and I see no concern for his friend in that decision; he wanted Jane to be indifferent, so he decided there was evidence that she was indifferent, and he assured Bingley of that indifference as though it were a fact. And he seemed to brag about it to Elizabeth.
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