Why would Sir Lewis's property go to Darcy?

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Why would Sir Lewis's property go to Darcy? Written by kathleen (elder) (4/29/2010 4:04 p.m.) in consequence of the missive, Does anyone Know?, penned by Aaron

And why would Darcy necessarily be the inheritor instead of one of the Fitzwilliams? Lady Catherine says that the de Bourgh family did not use entails. Lady C's daughter is the heiress of Rosings, and her Ladyship may have a life interest in the estate. If Rosings were entailed, then the inheritor would be on Sir Lewis's side of the family, not on the Fitzwilliam side.

Entails were not required. Longbourn was entailed, but Rosings was not.

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Does anyone Know? Aaron (4/29/2010 3:47 p.m.)

Widows and Inheritance BarbaraB (4/30/2010 1:05 p.m.)
- Barbara, would you mind... Line (4/30/2010 6:43 p.m.)
  - No Problem BarbaraB (4/30/2010 8:43 p.m.)
    - Thanks, Barbara! :-) (nfm) Line (5/1/2010 10:22 a.m.)
Why would Sir Lewis's property go to Darcy? kathleen (elder) (4/29/2010 4:04 p.m.)
- motivations for an entail Heather Leigh (4/29/2010 4:52 p.m.)
  - Yes, the whole point of entails in general... Line (4/30/2010 9:07 a.m.)

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