What worries me about Fanny’s voluntary acceptance of Henry if he had ‘persevered, and uprightly… within a reasonable period from Edmund’s marrying Mary’ (48) is that the narrator says nothing of their marriage being happy. Perhaps the idea had Henry ‘been satisfied with the conquest of one amiable woman’s affections’ is to mean he really did change and become steady. I feel that is on what Fanny’s happiness would rely—that Henry’s change was sincere and permanent. I would also hope Fanny’s judgment would not have been skewed by Edmund’s marrying Mary. I am really glad Fanny is safely married to Edmund in the end. (:D)